[I did not have time to write this, but I did so anyway, to let out intellectual frustration.]
Last summer a study was published on the genetic origins of the Mycenaeans and Minoans. It turns out that they were similar, but the Mycenaeans, whom we know had an Indo-European language, possessed a small amount of steppe-related admixture which the Minoans did not (so as a side note, this is more evidence for the “Kurgan hypothesis”). Both Mycenaeans and Minoans are related to modern Mediterranean Europeans, but in fact possessed less Northern European admixture than modern day Greeks (which contradicts the Nordicist narrative). I think this difference may be due to a subsequent Dorian invasion after the collapse of the Mycenaean civilization. The Dorians did worship a Nordic-looking deity, Apollo, and a new addition of Northern European blood, possibly from an off-shoot of the Corded Ware, may be the reason for the inclusion of characters with a Nordic pigmentation in the myths of Hesiod and Homer, who both wrote after the Dorian invasion.
Now regarding the perennial arguments about Nordicism and non-WASPs, it should first be noted that even Madison Grant acknowledged in The Passing of the Great Race that both Nordic and Mediterranean phenotypes were present in the British Isles, not only in the Irish, but also in the Welsh, English, and Scotts. All of these ethnic groups possess some admixture from both “Nordic” peoples from the Corded Ware Culture and its successors, and to a lesser degree, earlier Neolithic inhabitants of a more Mediterranean appearance. The confusion that has arisen here is due to the conflation of geographic and linguistic groups: “English”, “Irish”, “Scottish”, with phenotypes. As I showed before, none of these ethnic groups possess significantly more Levantine blood than continental Germanic and Scandinavian peoples. Any differences in phenotype are for a different reason, such as possessing more of an older admixture from the Megalithic era, due to geographic isolation (which makes more sense than a pseudohistorical migration of Semitic tribes into Northwestern Europe, which would have left significant amounts of Y chromosomal haplogroup J1, which is at low to null frequencies in the native British and Irish populations (edited)).
Another thing I would like to bring up is that Irish admixture is now present to some degree in Icelanders and Norwegians because of their slave trade in the Viking period. It is also present in the Scotts because of a migration from Ireland into Scotland during the early middle ages under the Dal Riata kingdom (which is why Scotland spoke Gaelic for several centuries and has many surnames beginning with Mc and Mac). The Vikings did take many slaves from Scotland and Ireland and brought them to Norway and Iceland, and eventually, they became incorporated into the Norse population. This admixture event is evident in the Y-chromosomal makeup of Iceland and Norway, in contrast to that of other Scandinavian and continental Germanic peoples (the Icelanders and Norwegians have more R1b-L21, which peaks in Ireland and Scotland).
Likewise, the Swedes and Germans probably have a small amount of Slavic admixture at the present time, given that a minority of them possess a Y-Chromosome lineage (R1a-M458) predominate among Western Slavs and much less common in other ethnic groups.
So it is clear that Nordic peoples possess some amount of admixture from non-Germanic ethnic groups. Notions of Germanic purity are at the present time difficult to prove.
I wrote this piece as someone probably classifiable as Nordic, with a long angular face; a high, long, European nose; green eyes; pale skin, and golden brown hair (in full light). My intent here is not to support Mediterranism or Nordicism but to provide a perspective of realism regarding European phenotypes and their relation to ethnicities and geographic areas.